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When did F become S in typeography, and why?


Were does Tifinagh come from?When and how did English become the Lingua Franca?Why did English become Lingua Franca of the modern world?When did English become a major subject in Japanese schools?When and how (why) did the idea that gender is not biological startWhen did French become the official language of France?When did Ireland become majority English-speakingOrigin of “It won't be done by next Tuesday”When did the British gentry stop wearing wigs?What is the earliest example of the usage of 'Nazis' to refer clearly and exclusively to the National-Socialists?













2















I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










share|improve this question



















  • 3





    it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    Apr 13 at 17:58






  • 1





    Also, why is the S in MINUTS upside down?

    – Mr Lister
    Apr 14 at 11:43















2















I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










share|improve this question



















  • 3





    it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    Apr 13 at 17:58






  • 1





    Also, why is the S in MINUTS upside down?

    – Mr Lister
    Apr 14 at 11:43













2












2








2








I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?










share|improve this question
















I'm sure you've all noticed documents in English from the 1700's often have 'F' where, if written now, there would be an 'S'. You can see what I'm talking about a few times in this example, like at the beginning where it says "Prayers faid" or in the date "Tuefday November 26. 1700."enter image description here



What's going on with this? When did it start? When did it stop?







18th-century language






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Apr 13 at 22:37









Ian Kemp

1033




1033










asked Apr 12 at 22:22









Ryan_LRyan_L

49549




49549







  • 3





    it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    Apr 13 at 17:58






  • 1





    Also, why is the S in MINUTS upside down?

    – Mr Lister
    Apr 14 at 11:43












  • 3





    it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

    – Agent_L
    Apr 13 at 17:58






  • 1





    Also, why is the S in MINUTS upside down?

    – Mr Lister
    Apr 14 at 11:43







3




3





it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

– Agent_L
Apr 13 at 17:58





it's not f, it's half of German double-s: ß

– Agent_L
Apr 13 at 17:58




1




1





Also, why is the S in MINUTS upside down?

– Mr Lister
Apr 14 at 11:43





Also, why is the S in MINUTS upside down?

– Mr Lister
Apr 14 at 11:43










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















29














There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer

























  • 'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

    – Daniel
    Apr 18 at 3:17


















0














It's not an f, it's a long s. It's used in maths to mean integral because one definition of an integral is the summation of a function's values.






share|improve this answer























  • @MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

    – Wrzlprmft
    Apr 14 at 13:42











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









29














There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer

























  • 'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

    – Daniel
    Apr 18 at 3:17















29














There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer

























  • 'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

    – Daniel
    Apr 18 at 3:17













29












29








29







There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?





share|improve this answer















There's a typographical distinction between an actual f and the ſ you're referring to in the text. See for instance the difference between 'magiſtrats' and 'behalf' in the second paragraph.



The 'ſ' is a long 's'; the Wikipedia article has a very long section on its history and decline of use.




In general, the long s fell out of use in Roman and italic typefaces in professional printing well before the middle of the 19th century. It rarely appears in good quality London printing after 1800, though it lingers provincially until 1824, and is found in handwriting into the second half of the nineteenth century" being sometimes seen later on in archaic or traditionalist printing such as printed collections of sermons.




See this Old English Alphabet for a more complete list of changes to the alphabet. And this somewhat related Linguistics SE question, with a long answer that explains how 'ſ' was just another way of writing 's' in some circumstances, rather than a letter that corresponded to a different pronunciation.



Other interesting posts courtesy of sumelic:



  • Use of “f” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

  • How exactly was the long S used and why did people stop using it?






share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited Apr 13 at 23:36









Laurel

32218




32218










answered Apr 12 at 22:48









Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

16.8k25366




16.8k25366












  • 'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

    – Daniel
    Apr 18 at 3:17

















  • 'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

    – Daniel
    Apr 18 at 3:17
















'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

– Daniel
Apr 18 at 3:17





'The Three Castles' cigarette company used the long s for the first s in castles at least into the 1940s.

– Daniel
Apr 18 at 3:17











0














It's not an f, it's a long s. It's used in maths to mean integral because one definition of an integral is the summation of a function's values.






share|improve this answer























  • @MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

    – Wrzlprmft
    Apr 14 at 13:42















0














It's not an f, it's a long s. It's used in maths to mean integral because one definition of an integral is the summation of a function's values.






share|improve this answer























  • @MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

    – Wrzlprmft
    Apr 14 at 13:42













0












0








0







It's not an f, it's a long s. It's used in maths to mean integral because one definition of an integral is the summation of a function's values.






share|improve this answer













It's not an f, it's a long s. It's used in maths to mean integral because one definition of an integral is the summation of a function's values.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Apr 14 at 11:01









BlokeDownThePubBlokeDownThePub

1391




1391












  • @MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

    – Wrzlprmft
    Apr 14 at 13:42

















  • @MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

    – Wrzlprmft
    Apr 14 at 13:42
















@MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

– Wrzlprmft
Apr 14 at 13:42





@MarkC.Wallace: The integral symbol in math (∫) orinates from the long s (ſ).

– Wrzlprmft
Apr 14 at 13:42

















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