Why should the equality of mixed partials be “intuitively obvious”?derivatives of multi variable fuction“How many” vector fields are conservative?Can cross partial derivatives exist everywhere but be equal nowhere?The symmetry of mixed partials, for derivatives of order > 2Twice differentiable implies equality of mixed partials?Proof of Equality with Mixed PartialsShow that gravity is described by this 1-formDescribe $15/(4,3,2,1)$ as a vectorWhat is the geometric reason of why is the divergence of the curl of a vector field equal to zero?

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Why should the equality of mixed partials be “intuitively obvious”?


derivatives of multi variable fuction“How many” vector fields are conservative?Can cross partial derivatives exist everywhere but be equal nowhere?The symmetry of mixed partials, for derivatives of order > 2Twice differentiable implies equality of mixed partials?Proof of Equality with Mixed PartialsShow that gravity is described by this 1-formDescribe $15/(4,3,2,1)$ as a vectorWhat is the geometric reason of why is the divergence of the curl of a vector field equal to zero?






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margin-bottom:0;

.everyonelovesstackoverflowposition:absolute;height:1px;width:1px;opacity:0;top:0;left:0;pointer-events:none;








6














$begingroup$


I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:



Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.



It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".










share|cite|improve this question












$endgroup$





















    6














    $begingroup$


    I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:



    Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.



    It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".










    share|cite|improve this question












    $endgroup$

















      6












      6








      6


      1



      $begingroup$


      I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:



      Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.



      It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".










      share|cite|improve this question












      $endgroup$




      I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:



      Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.



      It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".







      real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus






      share|cite|improve this question
















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jun 14 at 18:20







      Ovi

















      asked Jun 14 at 17:49









      OviOvi

      13.6k10 gold badges48 silver badges128 bronze badges




      13.6k10 gold badges48 silver badges128 bronze badges























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5
















          $begingroup$

          If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
          $$frac
          f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
          -f(x + Delta x, y )
          -f( x, y + Delta y)
          +f(x,y)

          Delta x Delta y .
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer










          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Jun 14 at 20:00










          • $begingroup$
            @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Jun 14 at 20:26


















          5
















          $begingroup$

          I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the reply!
            $endgroup$
            – Ovi
            Jun 14 at 18:31










          • $begingroup$
            I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
            $endgroup$
            – Andres Mejia
            Jun 14 at 18:35













          Your Answer








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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          5
















          $begingroup$

          If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
          $$frac
          f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
          -f(x + Delta x, y )
          -f( x, y + Delta y)
          +f(x,y)

          Delta x Delta y .
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer










          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Jun 14 at 20:00










          • $begingroup$
            @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Jun 14 at 20:26















          5
















          $begingroup$

          If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
          $$frac
          f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
          -f(x + Delta x, y )
          -f( x, y + Delta y)
          +f(x,y)

          Delta x Delta y .
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer










          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Jun 14 at 20:00










          • $begingroup$
            @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Jun 14 at 20:26













          5














          5










          5







          $begingroup$

          If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
          $$frac
          f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
          -f(x + Delta x, y )
          -f( x, y + Delta y)
          +f(x,y)

          Delta x Delta y .
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer










          $endgroup$



          If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
          $$frac
          f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
          -f(x + Delta x, y )
          -f( x, y + Delta y)
          +f(x,y)

          Delta x Delta y .
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer




          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jun 14 at 18:52









          Ethan BolkerEthan Bolker

          58.3k5 gold badges64 silver badges140 bronze badges




          58.3k5 gold badges64 silver badges140 bronze badges














          • $begingroup$
            This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Jun 14 at 20:00










          • $begingroup$
            @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Jun 14 at 20:26
















          • $begingroup$
            This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
            $endgroup$
            – Ted Shifrin
            Jun 14 at 20:00










          • $begingroup$
            @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
            $endgroup$
            – Ethan Bolker
            Jun 14 at 20:26















          $begingroup$
          This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
          $endgroup$
          – Ted Shifrin
          Jun 14 at 20:00




          $begingroup$
          This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
          $endgroup$
          – Ted Shifrin
          Jun 14 at 20:00












          $begingroup$
          @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
          $endgroup$
          – Ethan Bolker
          Jun 14 at 20:26




          $begingroup$
          @TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
          $endgroup$
          – Ethan Bolker
          Jun 14 at 20:26













          5
















          $begingroup$

          I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the reply!
            $endgroup$
            – Ovi
            Jun 14 at 18:31










          • $begingroup$
            I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
            $endgroup$
            – Andres Mejia
            Jun 14 at 18:35
















          5
















          $begingroup$

          I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the reply!
            $endgroup$
            – Ovi
            Jun 14 at 18:31










          • $begingroup$
            I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
            $endgroup$
            – Andres Mejia
            Jun 14 at 18:35














          5














          5










          5







          $begingroup$

          I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $endgroup$



          I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer




          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jun 14 at 18:41

























          answered Jun 14 at 18:29









          Ted ShifrinTed Shifrin

          70.8k4 gold badges50 silver badges96 bronze badges




          70.8k4 gold badges50 silver badges96 bronze badges














          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the reply!
            $endgroup$
            – Ovi
            Jun 14 at 18:31










          • $begingroup$
            I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
            $endgroup$
            – Andres Mejia
            Jun 14 at 18:35

















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the reply!
            $endgroup$
            – Ovi
            Jun 14 at 18:31










          • $begingroup$
            I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
            $endgroup$
            – Andres Mejia
            Jun 14 at 18:35
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the reply!
          $endgroup$
          – Ovi
          Jun 14 at 18:31




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the reply!
          $endgroup$
          – Ovi
          Jun 14 at 18:31












          $begingroup$
          I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
          $endgroup$
          – Andres Mejia
          Jun 14 at 18:35





          $begingroup$
          I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
          $endgroup$
          – Andres Mejia
          Jun 14 at 18:35



















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