Why should the equality of mixed partials be “intuitively obvious”?derivatives of multi variable fuction“How many” vector fields are conservative?Can cross partial derivatives exist everywhere but be equal nowhere?The symmetry of mixed partials, for derivatives of order > 2Twice differentiable implies equality of mixed partials?Proof of Equality with Mixed PartialsShow that gravity is described by this 1-formDescribe $15/(4,3,2,1)$ as a vectorWhat is the geometric reason of why is the divergence of the curl of a vector field equal to zero?
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Why should the equality of mixed partials be “intuitively obvious”?
derivatives of multi variable fuction“How many” vector fields are conservative?Can cross partial derivatives exist everywhere but be equal nowhere?The symmetry of mixed partials, for derivatives of order > 2Twice differentiable implies equality of mixed partials?Proof of Equality with Mixed PartialsShow that gravity is described by this 1-formDescribe $15/(4,3,2,1)$ as a vectorWhat is the geometric reason of why is the divergence of the curl of a vector field equal to zero?
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I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:
Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.
It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".
real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus
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I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:
Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.
It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".
real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus
$endgroup$
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:
Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.
It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".
real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus
$endgroup$
I am reading Ted Shifrin's excellent book Multivariable Mathematics. It claims that the equality of mixed partials is "an intuitively obvious result, but the proof is quite subtle". However, I guess I must be thinking in the wrong way, because I do not see the intuition behind this result. This is how I think about it:
Let $f:mathbbR^2 to mathbbR$. I think of $f_x$ as a "field of slopes" in the $x$-direction. If we analyze the movement in the $y$ direction in this field of slopes, we get $f_xy$. Now $f_y$ is a "field of slopes" in the $y$-direction. If we analyze movement in the $x$ direction here, we get $f_yx$.
It's unclear to me why movement in the $x$-direction in the "field of $y$-slopes" should be the same as movement in the $y$-direction in the "field of $x$-slopes".
real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus
real-analysis analysis multivariable-calculus
edited Jun 14 at 18:20
Ovi
asked Jun 14 at 17:49
OviOvi
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13.6k10 gold badges48 silver badges128 bronze badges
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2 Answers
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If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
$$frac
f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
-f(x + Delta x, y )
-f( x, y + Delta y)
+f(x,y)
Delta x Delta y .
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.
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$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
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I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
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– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
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2 Answers
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active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
$$frac
f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
-f(x + Delta x, y )
-f( x, y + Delta y)
+f(x,y)
Delta x Delta y .
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
$$frac
f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
-f(x + Delta x, y )
-f( x, y + Delta y)
+f(x,y)
Delta x Delta y .
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
$$frac
f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
-f(x + Delta x, y )
-f( x, y + Delta y)
+f(x,y)
Delta x Delta y .
$$
$endgroup$
If you write the difference quotient for a small change $Delta x$ in $x$ and then the difference quotient for that when you change $y$ by $Delta y$ the result is the symmetric expression
$$frac
f(x + Delta x, y + Delta y)
-f(x + Delta x, y )
-f( x, y + Delta y)
+f(x,y)
Delta x Delta y .
$$
answered Jun 14 at 18:52
Ethan BolkerEthan Bolker
58.3k5 gold badges64 silver badges140 bronze badges
58.3k5 gold badges64 silver badges140 bronze badges
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
This is, of course, how the proof proceeds. So why do we need $C^2$ (or something slightly weaker) at all? :)
$endgroup$
– Ted Shifrin
Jun 14 at 20:00
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
$begingroup$
@TedShifrin You need some smoothness assumption to justify taking the limit in either order.
$endgroup$
– Ethan Bolker
Jun 14 at 20:26
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
$begingroup$
I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
$endgroup$
– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
$begingroup$
I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
$endgroup$
– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.
$endgroup$
I guess most people develop intuition based on examples, and most examples we pick to examine are $C^2$ functions, where the equality holds. Or, alternatively, you could say that the intuition comes from experience with Taylor's Theorem (which appears in Section 3 of Chapter 5 of my book). The intuition I guess I'm fondest of appears in Chapter 7 (exercise 19 of Section 2), just using a double integral and interchanging the order of integration. (After all, it's natural to think about $displaystyleintleft(int fracpartial^2fpartial xpartial ydyright)dx$ and its companion.) I agree that it's not obvious a priori that the $y$ rate of change of $f_x$ should agree with the $x$ rate of change of $f_y$; the $C^2$ condition is subtle, as I said.
edited Jun 14 at 18:41
answered Jun 14 at 18:29
Ted ShifrinTed Shifrin
70.8k4 gold badges50 silver badges96 bronze badges
70.8k4 gold badges50 silver badges96 bronze badges
$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
$begingroup$
I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
$endgroup$
– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
add a comment
|
$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
$begingroup$
I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
$endgroup$
– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
$begingroup$
Thank you for the reply!
$endgroup$
– Ovi
Jun 14 at 18:31
$begingroup$
I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
$endgroup$
– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
$begingroup$
I was hoping that you would respond to this question!
$endgroup$
– Andres Mejia
Jun 14 at 18:35
add a comment
|
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