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A traceless stress energy tensor?


Trick for deriving the stress tensor in any theoryEnergy-Momentum Tensor in QFT vs. GRConserved current in a complex relativistic scalar fieldIs $phi^4$ theory in 4d conformally invariant at the classial level?2D Liouville Stress-Energy tensorHow do you compute the stress-energy tensor for electromagnetism + gauge fixing term?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty
margin-bottom:0;









2















$begingroup$


I'm trying to solve this exercise:




Suppose an arbitrary theory (Flat space-time?) with a single field (Is a scalar field?) invariant under dilations, i.e.
$xmapsto b x$ and $phi mapsto phi$. Show that the stress energy
tensor is traceless.




Writing the transformations as $xmapsto e^theta x$, $phimapsto e^omegathetaphi$, and $partial_muphimapsto e^(omega-1)thetapartial_muphi$, for $omega=0$.



I get the variations as $delta x_mu=theta x_mu$, $deltaphi=omegathetaphi=0$, and $partial_muphi=(omega-1)thetapartial_mu phi=-thetapartial_muphi$; and
I've tried to get some useful expression bassed on the variation of lagrangian:
$$
delta L=fracpartial Lpartialphidelta phi+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)delta(partial_muphi)=-thetafracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi.
$$

On the other hand, the trace of the tensor takes the form
$$
T_mu^mu=eta_munuT^munu=eta_munu(-eta^munuL+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial^nuphi)=-2L+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi
$$

Thus,
$$
T_mu^mu=-2L-fracdelta Ltheta.
$$

Obviously, if the lagrangian is invariant then the Tensor isn't traceless. So I don't have idea how to proceed.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





















    2















    $begingroup$


    I'm trying to solve this exercise:




    Suppose an arbitrary theory (Flat space-time?) with a single field (Is a scalar field?) invariant under dilations, i.e.
    $xmapsto b x$ and $phi mapsto phi$. Show that the stress energy
    tensor is traceless.




    Writing the transformations as $xmapsto e^theta x$, $phimapsto e^omegathetaphi$, and $partial_muphimapsto e^(omega-1)thetapartial_muphi$, for $omega=0$.



    I get the variations as $delta x_mu=theta x_mu$, $deltaphi=omegathetaphi=0$, and $partial_muphi=(omega-1)thetapartial_mu phi=-thetapartial_muphi$; and
    I've tried to get some useful expression bassed on the variation of lagrangian:
    $$
    delta L=fracpartial Lpartialphidelta phi+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)delta(partial_muphi)=-thetafracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi.
    $$

    On the other hand, the trace of the tensor takes the form
    $$
    T_mu^mu=eta_munuT^munu=eta_munu(-eta^munuL+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial^nuphi)=-2L+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi
    $$

    Thus,
    $$
    T_mu^mu=-2L-fracdelta Ltheta.
    $$

    Obviously, if the lagrangian is invariant then the Tensor isn't traceless. So I don't have idea how to proceed.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$

















      2













      2









      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      I'm trying to solve this exercise:




      Suppose an arbitrary theory (Flat space-time?) with a single field (Is a scalar field?) invariant under dilations, i.e.
      $xmapsto b x$ and $phi mapsto phi$. Show that the stress energy
      tensor is traceless.




      Writing the transformations as $xmapsto e^theta x$, $phimapsto e^omegathetaphi$, and $partial_muphimapsto e^(omega-1)thetapartial_muphi$, for $omega=0$.



      I get the variations as $delta x_mu=theta x_mu$, $deltaphi=omegathetaphi=0$, and $partial_muphi=(omega-1)thetapartial_mu phi=-thetapartial_muphi$; and
      I've tried to get some useful expression bassed on the variation of lagrangian:
      $$
      delta L=fracpartial Lpartialphidelta phi+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)delta(partial_muphi)=-thetafracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi.
      $$

      On the other hand, the trace of the tensor takes the form
      $$
      T_mu^mu=eta_munuT^munu=eta_munu(-eta^munuL+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial^nuphi)=-2L+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi
      $$

      Thus,
      $$
      T_mu^mu=-2L-fracdelta Ltheta.
      $$

      Obviously, if the lagrangian is invariant then the Tensor isn't traceless. So I don't have idea how to proceed.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I'm trying to solve this exercise:




      Suppose an arbitrary theory (Flat space-time?) with a single field (Is a scalar field?) invariant under dilations, i.e.
      $xmapsto b x$ and $phi mapsto phi$. Show that the stress energy
      tensor is traceless.




      Writing the transformations as $xmapsto e^theta x$, $phimapsto e^omegathetaphi$, and $partial_muphimapsto e^(omega-1)thetapartial_muphi$, for $omega=0$.



      I get the variations as $delta x_mu=theta x_mu$, $deltaphi=omegathetaphi=0$, and $partial_muphi=(omega-1)thetapartial_mu phi=-thetapartial_muphi$; and
      I've tried to get some useful expression bassed on the variation of lagrangian:
      $$
      delta L=fracpartial Lpartialphidelta phi+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)delta(partial_muphi)=-thetafracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi.
      $$

      On the other hand, the trace of the tensor takes the form
      $$
      T_mu^mu=eta_munuT^munu=eta_munu(-eta^munuL+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial^nuphi)=-2L+fracpartial Lpartial(partial_muphi)partial_muphi
      $$

      Thus,
      $$
      T_mu^mu=-2L-fracdelta Ltheta.
      $$

      Obviously, if the lagrangian is invariant then the Tensor isn't traceless. So I don't have idea how to proceed.







      homework-and-exercises lagrangian-formalism field-theory stress-energy-momentum-tensor scale-invariance






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Sep 30 at 3:45









      Qmechanic

      118k14 gold badges238 silver badges1409 bronze badges




      118k14 gold badges238 silver badges1409 bronze badges










      asked Sep 29 at 22:30









      Cristian RodríguezCristian Rodríguez

      2151 silver badge7 bronze badges




      2151 silver badge7 bronze badges























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          6

















          $begingroup$

          "Arbitrary theory" probably means



          • do not make a specific choice of metric (i.e. flat space time, your $eta_munu$),

          • do not make a specific choice of the symmetry operation (why did you define $phi rightarrow e^omega thetaphi$? If $theta, omega in mathbbR$, then it does not have magnitude $1$. If one of them is an imaginary number, then you've selected a $U(1)$ symmetry.

          So basically use equations that are general and apply to anything within the Lagrangian formalism.



          For instance, the stress energy tensor can be generally written as:



          $$ T_munu = frac-2sqrt-gfracdelta Sdelta g^munu,$$



          where $S$ is the action.



          Scaling transformations are a special case of conformal transformations where
          $$ delta g^munu = epsilon g^munu,$$
          in your specific example $epsilon = b^2$.



          Inverting the formula to single out the variation of the action:
          $$ delta S propto T_munudelta g^munu = epsilon T_munu g^munu = T^mu_mu,$$



          where the last step is the trace!



          Since the action must be minimised, $delta S =0$, you must have $T^mu_mu=0$, i.e. a traceless stress-energy tensor.






          share|cite|improve this answer










          $endgroup$





















            3

















            $begingroup$

            We know that the stress-energy tensor is divergenceless, i.e.
            $$partial_muT^munu=0.$$
            A proof of this follows from the definition of canonical stress-energy tensor considering the action is invariant under translation $x^mu rightarrow x^mu + a^mu$. Now the transformation that you mentioned is a conformal transformation. Infinitesimally, the conformal transformation can be written as, $$x^mu rightarrow x'^mu = x^mu + epsilon^mu(x),$$ where $epsilon$ follows,
            $$partial^mu epsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu = frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu.$$ This equation is known as confomal Killing equation which can be derived from the property about how the metric changes under a conformal transformation.
            Now, for a conformal symmetry, Noether's theorem suggests that there is a current $j_mu = T_munuepsilon^nu$ which is conserved. Hence,
            $$partial^mu j_mu = 0$$
            $$beginalign
            &implies (partial^mu T_munu)epsilon^nu + T_munupartial^muepsilon^nu=0\
            &implies frac12 T_munu (partial^muepsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu)=0\
            &implies frac12 T_munu frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu=0\
            &implies frac1d(partial.epsilon) T^mu_mu = 0.
            endalign$$

            Since this is true for any $epsilon(x)$, $T^mu_mu=0$. That is the stress-energy tensor is traceless. The $epsilon(x)$ in your case is $(b-1)x$.



            The answer given by SuperCiocia is perfectly correct and nice but uses the Einstein-Hilbert form of the stress-energy tensor. However, from the question, it seems that the OP is more familiar with the canonical stress-energy tensor. Hence, this is an alternative derivation of the tracelessness of the stress-energy tensor for a conformal transformation.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
              $endgroup$
              – SuperCiocia
              Sep 30 at 6:32










            • $begingroup$
              Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
              $endgroup$
              – Winther
              Sep 30 at 12:27










            • $begingroup$
              @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
              $endgroup$
              – abhijit975
              Sep 30 at 14:27










            • $begingroup$
              There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
              $endgroup$
              – abhijit975
              Sep 30 at 14:27










            • $begingroup$
              Ah ok thank you
              $endgroup$
              – SuperCiocia
              Sep 30 at 15:19












            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            6

















            $begingroup$

            "Arbitrary theory" probably means



            • do not make a specific choice of metric (i.e. flat space time, your $eta_munu$),

            • do not make a specific choice of the symmetry operation (why did you define $phi rightarrow e^omega thetaphi$? If $theta, omega in mathbbR$, then it does not have magnitude $1$. If one of them is an imaginary number, then you've selected a $U(1)$ symmetry.

            So basically use equations that are general and apply to anything within the Lagrangian formalism.



            For instance, the stress energy tensor can be generally written as:



            $$ T_munu = frac-2sqrt-gfracdelta Sdelta g^munu,$$



            where $S$ is the action.



            Scaling transformations are a special case of conformal transformations where
            $$ delta g^munu = epsilon g^munu,$$
            in your specific example $epsilon = b^2$.



            Inverting the formula to single out the variation of the action:
            $$ delta S propto T_munudelta g^munu = epsilon T_munu g^munu = T^mu_mu,$$



            where the last step is the trace!



            Since the action must be minimised, $delta S =0$, you must have $T^mu_mu=0$, i.e. a traceless stress-energy tensor.






            share|cite|improve this answer










            $endgroup$


















              6

















              $begingroup$

              "Arbitrary theory" probably means



              • do not make a specific choice of metric (i.e. flat space time, your $eta_munu$),

              • do not make a specific choice of the symmetry operation (why did you define $phi rightarrow e^omega thetaphi$? If $theta, omega in mathbbR$, then it does not have magnitude $1$. If one of them is an imaginary number, then you've selected a $U(1)$ symmetry.

              So basically use equations that are general and apply to anything within the Lagrangian formalism.



              For instance, the stress energy tensor can be generally written as:



              $$ T_munu = frac-2sqrt-gfracdelta Sdelta g^munu,$$



              where $S$ is the action.



              Scaling transformations are a special case of conformal transformations where
              $$ delta g^munu = epsilon g^munu,$$
              in your specific example $epsilon = b^2$.



              Inverting the formula to single out the variation of the action:
              $$ delta S propto T_munudelta g^munu = epsilon T_munu g^munu = T^mu_mu,$$



              where the last step is the trace!



              Since the action must be minimised, $delta S =0$, you must have $T^mu_mu=0$, i.e. a traceless stress-energy tensor.






              share|cite|improve this answer










              $endgroup$
















                6















                6











                6







                $begingroup$

                "Arbitrary theory" probably means



                • do not make a specific choice of metric (i.e. flat space time, your $eta_munu$),

                • do not make a specific choice of the symmetry operation (why did you define $phi rightarrow e^omega thetaphi$? If $theta, omega in mathbbR$, then it does not have magnitude $1$. If one of them is an imaginary number, then you've selected a $U(1)$ symmetry.

                So basically use equations that are general and apply to anything within the Lagrangian formalism.



                For instance, the stress energy tensor can be generally written as:



                $$ T_munu = frac-2sqrt-gfracdelta Sdelta g^munu,$$



                where $S$ is the action.



                Scaling transformations are a special case of conformal transformations where
                $$ delta g^munu = epsilon g^munu,$$
                in your specific example $epsilon = b^2$.



                Inverting the formula to single out the variation of the action:
                $$ delta S propto T_munudelta g^munu = epsilon T_munu g^munu = T^mu_mu,$$



                where the last step is the trace!



                Since the action must be minimised, $delta S =0$, you must have $T^mu_mu=0$, i.e. a traceless stress-energy tensor.






                share|cite|improve this answer










                $endgroup$



                "Arbitrary theory" probably means



                • do not make a specific choice of metric (i.e. flat space time, your $eta_munu$),

                • do not make a specific choice of the symmetry operation (why did you define $phi rightarrow e^omega thetaphi$? If $theta, omega in mathbbR$, then it does not have magnitude $1$. If one of them is an imaginary number, then you've selected a $U(1)$ symmetry.

                So basically use equations that are general and apply to anything within the Lagrangian formalism.



                For instance, the stress energy tensor can be generally written as:



                $$ T_munu = frac-2sqrt-gfracdelta Sdelta g^munu,$$



                where $S$ is the action.



                Scaling transformations are a special case of conformal transformations where
                $$ delta g^munu = epsilon g^munu,$$
                in your specific example $epsilon = b^2$.



                Inverting the formula to single out the variation of the action:
                $$ delta S propto T_munudelta g^munu = epsilon T_munu g^munu = T^mu_mu,$$



                where the last step is the trace!



                Since the action must be minimised, $delta S =0$, you must have $T^mu_mu=0$, i.e. a traceless stress-energy tensor.







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer




                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Sep 30 at 0:00









                SuperCiociaSuperCiocia

                12.2k8 gold badges41 silver badges101 bronze badges




                12.2k8 gold badges41 silver badges101 bronze badges


























                    3

















                    $begingroup$

                    We know that the stress-energy tensor is divergenceless, i.e.
                    $$partial_muT^munu=0.$$
                    A proof of this follows from the definition of canonical stress-energy tensor considering the action is invariant under translation $x^mu rightarrow x^mu + a^mu$. Now the transformation that you mentioned is a conformal transformation. Infinitesimally, the conformal transformation can be written as, $$x^mu rightarrow x'^mu = x^mu + epsilon^mu(x),$$ where $epsilon$ follows,
                    $$partial^mu epsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu = frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu.$$ This equation is known as confomal Killing equation which can be derived from the property about how the metric changes under a conformal transformation.
                    Now, for a conformal symmetry, Noether's theorem suggests that there is a current $j_mu = T_munuepsilon^nu$ which is conserved. Hence,
                    $$partial^mu j_mu = 0$$
                    $$beginalign
                    &implies (partial^mu T_munu)epsilon^nu + T_munupartial^muepsilon^nu=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu (partial^muepsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu)=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu=0\
                    &implies frac1d(partial.epsilon) T^mu_mu = 0.
                    endalign$$

                    Since this is true for any $epsilon(x)$, $T^mu_mu=0$. That is the stress-energy tensor is traceless. The $epsilon(x)$ in your case is $(b-1)x$.



                    The answer given by SuperCiocia is perfectly correct and nice but uses the Einstein-Hilbert form of the stress-energy tensor. However, from the question, it seems that the OP is more familiar with the canonical stress-energy tensor. Hence, this is an alternative derivation of the tracelessness of the stress-energy tensor for a conformal transformation.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 6:32










                    • $begingroup$
                      Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Winther
                      Sep 30 at 12:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      Ah ok thank you
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 15:19















                    3

















                    $begingroup$

                    We know that the stress-energy tensor is divergenceless, i.e.
                    $$partial_muT^munu=0.$$
                    A proof of this follows from the definition of canonical stress-energy tensor considering the action is invariant under translation $x^mu rightarrow x^mu + a^mu$. Now the transformation that you mentioned is a conformal transformation. Infinitesimally, the conformal transformation can be written as, $$x^mu rightarrow x'^mu = x^mu + epsilon^mu(x),$$ where $epsilon$ follows,
                    $$partial^mu epsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu = frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu.$$ This equation is known as confomal Killing equation which can be derived from the property about how the metric changes under a conformal transformation.
                    Now, for a conformal symmetry, Noether's theorem suggests that there is a current $j_mu = T_munuepsilon^nu$ which is conserved. Hence,
                    $$partial^mu j_mu = 0$$
                    $$beginalign
                    &implies (partial^mu T_munu)epsilon^nu + T_munupartial^muepsilon^nu=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu (partial^muepsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu)=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu=0\
                    &implies frac1d(partial.epsilon) T^mu_mu = 0.
                    endalign$$

                    Since this is true for any $epsilon(x)$, $T^mu_mu=0$. That is the stress-energy tensor is traceless. The $epsilon(x)$ in your case is $(b-1)x$.



                    The answer given by SuperCiocia is perfectly correct and nice but uses the Einstein-Hilbert form of the stress-energy tensor. However, from the question, it seems that the OP is more familiar with the canonical stress-energy tensor. Hence, this is an alternative derivation of the tracelessness of the stress-energy tensor for a conformal transformation.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 6:32










                    • $begingroup$
                      Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Winther
                      Sep 30 at 12:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      Ah ok thank you
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 15:19













                    3















                    3











                    3







                    $begingroup$

                    We know that the stress-energy tensor is divergenceless, i.e.
                    $$partial_muT^munu=0.$$
                    A proof of this follows from the definition of canonical stress-energy tensor considering the action is invariant under translation $x^mu rightarrow x^mu + a^mu$. Now the transformation that you mentioned is a conformal transformation. Infinitesimally, the conformal transformation can be written as, $$x^mu rightarrow x'^mu = x^mu + epsilon^mu(x),$$ where $epsilon$ follows,
                    $$partial^mu epsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu = frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu.$$ This equation is known as confomal Killing equation which can be derived from the property about how the metric changes under a conformal transformation.
                    Now, for a conformal symmetry, Noether's theorem suggests that there is a current $j_mu = T_munuepsilon^nu$ which is conserved. Hence,
                    $$partial^mu j_mu = 0$$
                    $$beginalign
                    &implies (partial^mu T_munu)epsilon^nu + T_munupartial^muepsilon^nu=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu (partial^muepsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu)=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu=0\
                    &implies frac1d(partial.epsilon) T^mu_mu = 0.
                    endalign$$

                    Since this is true for any $epsilon(x)$, $T^mu_mu=0$. That is the stress-energy tensor is traceless. The $epsilon(x)$ in your case is $(b-1)x$.



                    The answer given by SuperCiocia is perfectly correct and nice but uses the Einstein-Hilbert form of the stress-energy tensor. However, from the question, it seems that the OP is more familiar with the canonical stress-energy tensor. Hence, this is an alternative derivation of the tracelessness of the stress-energy tensor for a conformal transformation.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    $endgroup$



                    We know that the stress-energy tensor is divergenceless, i.e.
                    $$partial_muT^munu=0.$$
                    A proof of this follows from the definition of canonical stress-energy tensor considering the action is invariant under translation $x^mu rightarrow x^mu + a^mu$. Now the transformation that you mentioned is a conformal transformation. Infinitesimally, the conformal transformation can be written as, $$x^mu rightarrow x'^mu = x^mu + epsilon^mu(x),$$ where $epsilon$ follows,
                    $$partial^mu epsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu = frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu.$$ This equation is known as confomal Killing equation which can be derived from the property about how the metric changes under a conformal transformation.
                    Now, for a conformal symmetry, Noether's theorem suggests that there is a current $j_mu = T_munuepsilon^nu$ which is conserved. Hence,
                    $$partial^mu j_mu = 0$$
                    $$beginalign
                    &implies (partial^mu T_munu)epsilon^nu + T_munupartial^muepsilon^nu=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu (partial^muepsilon^nu + partial^nuepsilon^mu)=0\
                    &implies frac12 T_munu frac2d(partial.epsilon)eta^munu=0\
                    &implies frac1d(partial.epsilon) T^mu_mu = 0.
                    endalign$$

                    Since this is true for any $epsilon(x)$, $T^mu_mu=0$. That is the stress-energy tensor is traceless. The $epsilon(x)$ in your case is $(b-1)x$.



                    The answer given by SuperCiocia is perfectly correct and nice but uses the Einstein-Hilbert form of the stress-energy tensor. However, from the question, it seems that the OP is more familiar with the canonical stress-energy tensor. Hence, this is an alternative derivation of the tracelessness of the stress-energy tensor for a conformal transformation.







                    share|cite|improve this answer















                    share|cite|improve this answer




                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Sep 30 at 14:24

























                    answered Sep 30 at 0:41









                    abhijit975abhijit975

                    4823 silver badges11 bronze badges




                    4823 silver badges11 bronze badges














                    • $begingroup$
                      Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 6:32










                    • $begingroup$
                      Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Winther
                      Sep 30 at 12:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      Ah ok thank you
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 15:19
















                    • $begingroup$
                      Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 6:32










                    • $begingroup$
                      Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Winther
                      Sep 30 at 12:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
                      $endgroup$
                      – abhijit975
                      Sep 30 at 14:27










                    • $begingroup$
                      Ah ok thank you
                      $endgroup$
                      – SuperCiocia
                      Sep 30 at 15:19















                    $begingroup$
                    Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
                    $endgroup$
                    – SuperCiocia
                    Sep 30 at 6:32




                    $begingroup$
                    Wait can you write scaling $xrightarrow bx$ as a translation $xrightarrow x+a$?
                    $endgroup$
                    – SuperCiocia
                    Sep 30 at 6:32












                    $begingroup$
                    Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Winther
                    Sep 30 at 12:27




                    $begingroup$
                    Where does the condition $phitophi$ enter this argument (same goes for the answer above)?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Winther
                    Sep 30 at 12:27












                    $begingroup$
                    @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – abhijit975
                    Sep 30 at 14:27




                    $begingroup$
                    @SuperCiocia You can write $xrightarrow bx = x+(b-1)x=x+epsilon(x)$ where $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$. Remember that in the derivation $epsilon$ does not have to be a constant but can be a function of $x$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – abhijit975
                    Sep 30 at 14:27












                    $begingroup$
                    There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
                    $endgroup$
                    – abhijit975
                    Sep 30 at 14:27




                    $begingroup$
                    There was a typo in the answer which I fixed. $epsilon(x) = (b-1)x$
                    $endgroup$
                    – abhijit975
                    Sep 30 at 14:27












                    $begingroup$
                    Ah ok thank you
                    $endgroup$
                    – SuperCiocia
                    Sep 30 at 15:19




                    $begingroup$
                    Ah ok thank you
                    $endgroup$
                    – SuperCiocia
                    Sep 30 at 15:19


















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